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The majority of discussions about a capital marginal efficiency it was not givenAny attention to all members of the specified number, besides Q1.
It, however, cannot be justified, unless remaining within the limits of static
Theories where all Q are equal. The accepted theory of allocation, in which
It is supposed that the capital during each current period of time receives the
Limiting product, it is lawful only for a motionless state. Cumulative The current income of the capital has no direct ratio to its limiting
Efficiency. At the same time the current income of limiting unit of the capital
(I.e. The income of the capital, participating in definition of the price of the sentence
To production) it is equal to limiting costs of usage that also has no Peer-to-peer communication with a capital marginal efficiency.
Amazes, how I have already told, surprising absence of clearness in it
Question. At the same time I believe that the definition made by me is rather close
Approaches to that meant Marshall. Marshall itself applied expression "Limiting pure efficiency" the production factor, or, otherwise,
"Limiting usefulness of the capital". The report of statements, most is more low given
Close concerning this point in question which I could find in its "Principles"
(67). To transfer a being of thought of Marshall, I have connected together Some phrases which in its text are divided:
"At any factory additional computers in cost of 100 pounds sterling Can be applied so that without additional expenditures To provide additional 3 pounds sterling of annual net avails of factory for
Deduction of amortisation of these computers. If investors invest the capital everywhere, where
They calculate to get high profit, and if, after it Balance is made also installed, the specified income still covers, besides
In accuracy, expenditures on application of these computers we can conclude from here,
That the annual norm of percent makes 3 %. However examples such Detect only a part of those internal forces which define cost. Them
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